a. an increase in blood pressure.
b. a decrease in body temperature.
c. a decrease in blood pressure.
d. an increase in body temperature.
a. specific phobias
b. social phobia
c. panic disorder
c. situationally bound
d. environmentally predisposed
a. attitudes of inflated responsibility.
b. a reduced sense of responsibility for their actions.
c. non-equivalence of obsessive thoughts and compulsive actions.
d. both checking and hoarding rituals.
a. social phobia.
b. panic disorder.
c. specific phobia.
d. posttraumatic stress disorder.
a. general psychological
b. specific biological
c. general biological
d. specific psychological
a. Increased heart rate
b. Heightened autonomic arousal
c. Increased muscle tension
d. Decreased EEG beta activity
a. have a media age of onset based on interviews was 25.
b. have episodes that come and go.
c. have a 58% chance of recovery after having the disorder for 12 years .
d. are three times as likely to develop agoraphobia as those without GAD.
a. a phobia of going into his brother’s room because he is afraid his hatred will actually hurt him.
b. a compulsive ritual designed to make him like his brother more.
c. an attempt to be better in math than his brother to gain parental acceptance.
d. a mental compulsion developed to neutralize his bad thoughts.
d. Prefrontal cortex
a. Observing someone else experience severe fear
b. Having a nightmare about a feared situation
c. In certain conditions, being told about danger
d. Experiencing a panic attack in a specific situation
a.Carrie has an obsessive fear of contamination that has led to compulsive hand-washing rituals. Her therapist is treating her by making her touch dirty laundry but not allowing her to wash for increasingly longer periods of time afterward.
b.Kerry has an obsessive fear of contamination that has led to compulsive hand-washing rituals. Her therapist is treating her by forcing her to wash her hands repeatedly, even when she doesn’t feel anxious.
c.Kelly has religious obsessions. She feels that if she doesn’t read biblical passages every hour of the day, she will do something evil. Her therapist is treating her by having her attend religious services more frequently so that good thoughts will replace the bad ones.
d.Callie has a hoarding compulsion. She becomes anxious whenever she has to throw something away; she even keeps stuff that she doesn’t need and will never use. Her therapist has arranged for all Callie’s junk to be dumped when she is away from home.
a. Monica, a 50-year-old woman
b. Sam, a 50-year-old male
c. Billy, an 8-year-old boy
d. Tanya, a 15-year-old girl
a. very similar across cultures.
b. lower in European countries.
c. higher in Africa nations.
d. virtually nonexistent in some cultures.
b. MAO inhibitors
a. This strategy has no effect on the obsessive thoughts.
b. Other kinds of obsessive thinking start to occur.
c. The obsessive thoughts disappear.
d. The frequency of the obsessive thoughts increases
a. biological or psychological.
b. positive or negative.
c. behavioral or mental.
d. autonomic or somatic.
a. never let them experience adversity.
b. cope for the child as much as possible.
c. teach independence by ignoring the child’s needs.
d. let children explore the world and deal with the unexpected.
a. performing onstage.
b. embarrassing oneself.
c. personally offending others.
d. speaking to females.
a. in REM sleep
b. deeply asleep
c. having a nightmare
b. Specific phobia
c. Panic disorder
d. Social phobia
a. Acute stress disorder was included as a DSM-IV diagnosis so early severe reactions to trauma could receive health insurance coverage for immediate treatment.
b. Most persons diagnosed with acute stress disorder do not eventually develop PTSD.
c. PTSD occurs in all individuals who experience a traumatic event.
d. Acute stress disorder is diagnosed instead of PTSD if a person’s symptoms begin 6 months or more after the traumatic event.
a. Cognitive therapy to modify conscious or unconscious perceptions about the “dangerousness” of feared situations
b. Creation of mini panic attacks in the therapist’s office
c. Reducing agoraphobic avoidance by exposure to feared situations
d. Exercises to elevate the heart rate or spinning to make the patient dizzy
a. related to depression
b. caused by multiple genes
c. caused by a single gene
d. related to schizophrenia
a. exposure and ritual prevention.
b. anxiety reduction therapy.
c. behavioral inhibition conditioning.
d. thought-stopping technique
d. African Americans
a. separation from family.
b. high rates of drug addiction.
c. absence of social support.
d. youth and inexperience.
a. separation anxiety disorder.
b. school phobia.
c. globus hystericus.
d. situational phobia.
a. exaggerated obsessive-compulsive disorder.
b. mild generalized anxiety disorder.
c. severe, unexpected panic attacks.
d. major phobias
a. Panic disorder does not “run in families.”
b. A single gene makes us vulnerable to anxiety.
c. Stress is a direct cause of panic disorder.
d. An inherited tendency can make us tense or uptight.
a. Re-exposure to the trauma should be accomplished quickly to assure the best therapeutic response.
b. Victims of PTSD often repress the emotional part of their memories of the traumatic event.
c. Psychoanalytic therapists help patients to relive emotional trauma through a process called free association.
d. Medications effective for other anxiety disorders are ineffective with PTSD.
a. short-term; long-term
b. real; irrational
c. immediate; future-oriented
d. future-oriented; immediate
a. Streptococcal Caused Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (SCOCD).
b. Pediatric Autoimmune Disorder associated with Streptococcal Infection (PANDAS).
c. Strep Throat Acquired Compulsive Disorder (STACD).
d. Tic Activated by Strep Throat Exemplar (TASTE).
a. is better than drug treatment alone.
b. is better than ERP alone.
c. does not produce any additional therapeutic advantage.
d. causes patients to discontinue treatment.
a. decrease in inhibitory mechanisms in the somatic nervous system so we can flee.
b. physiological but not psychological response.
c. surge of energy in the autonomic nervous system so we can flee.
d. psychological but not physiological response.
a. the amygdala, which disrupts sleep.
b. the hippocampus, which disrupts sleep.
c. the amygdala, which disrupts learning and memory.
d. the hippocampus, which disrupts learning and memory.
a. better than the individual treatments alone.
b. worse in combination.
c. only as well as the individual medical treatments.
d. only as well as the individual psychological treatments.
a. smoked after age 20.
b. never smoked.
c. smoked as a teen.
d. chewed tobacco as a teen.
a. ascending from the brain stem
b. within the amygdala only
c. descending from the cortex
d. arising from the brain stem or descending from the cortex
a. Exposure to the interceptive sensations associated with panic attacks
b. Referral to a psychiatrist for medication monitoring
c. Traditional exposure-based treatments result in a higher rate of cures
d. As part of PCT, the therapist accompanies the patient on “reality testing” activities
a. suffer from either post traumatic stress disorder or social phobia.
b. use alcohol or other drugs to reduce anxiety.
c. become horrified by such thoughts and consider them signs of some alien, intrusive, evil force.
d. develop insomnia and nightmares as well as dissociation symptoms and, on occasion, psychosis.
a. people cannot be convinced of events that did not happen.
b. people can become quite convinced of events that never happened.
c. people can become convinced of events that did not happen only during hypnosis or other dissociative states.
d. only individuals with diagnosable disorders can be convinced of events that never happened.
a. the elderly
b. almost never seen in this disorder
d. present in every patient
a. usually eager to demonstrate their symptoms.
b. usually hiding the existence of a major life crisis.
c. less likely to seek treatment.
d. more likely to have many alters.
a. most DID patients are faking.
b. objective tests can always determine which patients are faking dissociative identity disorder.
c. research suggests that faking dissociative experiences is possible.
d. it is virtually impossible to fake the types of changes that occur in dissociative identity disorder.
a. Feeling a lump in the throat that interferes with swallowing, eating, or talking.
b. Great concern with the loss of function and belief that it is a symptom of a potentially fatal disease
c. Ability to identify everything in the visual field even though the patient reports that she is blind
d. Ability to see some bright objects when calm but suffering complete loss of sight during a stressful period or emergency
a. 10 years
b. a lifetime
c. 20 years
d. several months
a. have only one other distinct personality.
b. suffer a loss of their own identity that lasts several years.
c. have several distinct personalities.
d. maintain complete awareness of all of their personalities.
a. usually occurs instantaneously.
b. is the transition from one personality to another.
c. may exhibit physical transformations.
d. all of these
a. have low sensitivity to perceived illness.
b. minimize physical symptoms.
c. avoid bad news cues.
d. interpret ambiguous stimuli as threatening
a. obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. antisocial personality disorder
a. antidepressants are effective but not significantly different from a placebo condition.
b. antidepressants are not effective.
c.placebo-controlled studies have been performed and the results suggest that antidepressants work for some hypochondriacs but not for most.
d. some reports suggest that antidepressants may be effective, but placebo-controlled studies have not been performed
a. primary narcissism.
b. secondary narcissism.
c. secondary gain.
d. primary gain.
a. integration of personality fragments.
b. hypnotic regression to early life experiences.
c. reliving the trauma (catharsis).
d. use of antipsychotic medications.
c. loss of consciousness
d. flight or travel
a. are having imagined physical sensations, while those with somatic symptom disorder are experiencing real physical sensations.
b.tend to ignore the symptoms of their first attacks, while those with somatic symptom disorder tend to seek immediate medical treatment following the first indication of pain.
c. tend to fear immediate catastrophe, while those with somatic symptom disorder tend to fear long-term illness.
d. are having real physical sensations, while the sensations of those with somatic symptom disorder are “all in their heads.”
b. the early stages of what will eventually become a severe psychotic disorder
c. symptoms of a mood disorder
a. unrelenting substance abuse.
b. a history of body dysmorphic disorder.
c. a history of severe child abuse.
d. hallucinations and delusions.
d. only after many warning signs that a change is about to occur
a. take on a new identity.
b. contact friends and family.
c. see the world as a strange and foreign place.
d. commit suicide.
a. DID is absolutely impossible to fake.
b. DID is made up of false memories.
c. DID is easy to fake.
d. Dissociative symptoms may be the result of sleep deprivation
a. hypochondriac; factitious
b. malingerer; factitious
c. conversion disorder patient; malingering
d. fictitious disorder patient; conversion
a. Like somatic symptom disorder, clients do not respond well to any treatment.
b. Clients responded well to hypnosis.
c. Clients responded well to cognitive-behavioral therapy.
d. Clients responded well when hypnosis and cognitive-behavioral therapy were combined.
a. avoid unnecessary medical procedures.
b. avoid doctors.
c. ignore the long-term process of illness.
d. soon reject assurances that they are healthy.
b. so different as to have no similarities at all
c. very different
d. very similar
a. dysfunctional ovary
b. tense vagina
c. wandering uterus
d. none of these
a. humanistic therapy
b. cognitive-behavioral treatment and stress reduction
a. a separate identity experienced by someone with dissociative identity disorder.
b. a new identity created by someone with dissociative fugue.
c. a new identity created by someone with generalized amnesia.
d. a physical symptom with no physical cause experienced by someone with somatic symptom disorder.
b. schizophrenic moment
c. conversion reaction
d. dissociative trance disorder
a. can be developed through therapist suggestion and reinforcement.
b. are almost never the result of therapist intervention.
c. cannot be developed through therapist suggestion and reinforcement.
d. are almost always the result of hypnotically inserted (false) memories.
a. the “host” personality
b. a dangerous personality
c. a different personality
d. the most recent personality to emerge
a. an extensive medical and physical workup with every visit to a new physician.
b. the person’s tendency to visit numerous medical specialists.
c. both a and b
d. neither a or b
a. depersonalization-derealization disorder
c. dissociative identity disorder
d. dissociative amnesia with dissociative fugue
a. underlying unconscious conflicts.
b. the clash of conscious and unconscious therapy.
c. dream process.
d. identity concepts
a. able to create false memories to ease their trauma.
b. able to use dissociation as a defense against extreme trauma.
c. able to remember the trauma that created the false memories.
d. unable to switch at will.
a. only when the trance causes harm to the individual or others.
b. whenever an individual repeatedly enters a trance state.
c. only when the trance is undesirable and considered pathological in the individual’s culture.
d. only when the trance is unpredictable in terms of when it appears (i.e., individual goes into a trance without prior religious ritual).
a. easy to fake.
b. difficult to fake.
c. absolutely impossible to fake.
d. consistent with an individual who was trying to fake.
a. is sexually provocative.
b. earns income for the individual.
c. asks for treatment and becomes the patient.
d. is the most aggressive of the personalities.
a. sibling rivalry and attention deficits.
b. poor modeling by parents and other authority figures.
c. genetic defects and poor nutrition.
d. pleasure seeking and impulsivity
a. at least one other psychological disorder.
b. a problem with her weight.
c. a history of problems with the law.
d. no desire to get better.
a. a fugue state
b. a dissociative disorder
d. a trance state
a. altered perception including loss of the sense of one’s own reality.
b. the feeling that one is no longer a person.
c. altered perception involving loss of the sense of reality of the external world.
d. vivid hallucinations.
a. influence of culture on psychopathology.
b. physical basis of many hypochondriacs’ complaints.
c. influence of genetics on psychopathology.
d. difficulty of accurately diagnosing hypochondriasis.
a. rare but applied to anyone who experiences depersonalization.
b. fairly common since many people experience depersonalization.
c. fairly common and applied to anyone who is frightened by an experience of depersonalization.
d. rare and only applied when the experience of depersonalization interferes with normal functioning
a. the process of placing a tube into the bladder to release urine.
b. a conscious behavioral process.
c. a purging of emotionally traumatic events.
d. none of these
a. assignment of a gatekeeper physician
b. encouraging patients to speak to family and friends about their symptoms
c. exposure therapy
a. murders other people’s children.
b. commits suicide.
c. injures the child’s father.
d. kills her child.
a. later have a manic episode.
b. most likely have just one more episode.
c. probably have several episodes throughout their lives.
d. never have another episode.
a. SAD can be treated with phototherapy, i.e., 2 hours of exposure to bright light just before going to sleep.
b. Depression in vulnerable people might be triggered by decreased production of the hormone called melatonin.
c. People with SAD have symptoms of decreased sleep and decreased appetite.
d. Women with SAD reported more autonomous negative thoughts throughout the year than women without SAD.
a. Men have twice as many mood disorders as women.
b. Bipolar disorders occur equally across the sexes.
c. Dysthymia occurs equally across the sexes.
d. Females experience major depressive disorders less frequently than males.
a. for severely depressed patients with psychotic features, approximately 25% of those not responding to medication will benefit.
b. electric shock is administered directly to the brain for less than a second.
c. patient response to antidepressant medication is poor.
d. ECT treatments are administered every other day for a total of 6 to 10 treatments.
a. bipolar disorder
b. atypical depression
c. dysfunctional dysthymia
d. double depression
a. cognitive-behavioral theory.
b. humanistic/existential theory.
c. the learned helplessness theory.
d. the control theory of depression
a. Overwhelming evidence suggests mood disorders are familial and reflect an underlying genetic vulnerability.
b. Studies are now beginning to identify a small group of genes that may contribute to genetic vulnerability to some types of depression.
c. The genetic contribution to depression falls in the range of approximately 40% for females and 20% for males.
d. All of the above
b. their future
c. their past
d. their immediate world
a. 16%; 6%
b. 11%; 4%
c. 25%; 10%
d. 21%; 8%
a. indicated interventions.
b. universal programs.
c. selected interventions.
d. milieu interventions.
a. the suppression of neurogenesis in the hippocampus is due to the connection between high stress hormones and depression.
b. low hippocampal volume may precede and contribute to the onset of depression
c. electroconvulsive therapy seems to produce neurogenesis in the hippocampus
d. All of the above
a. lowered thyroid functioning
c. lack of energy
d. weight loss
a. 33% to 50%
b. 10% to 20%
c. 50% to 66%
d. 25% to 33%
a. Suicide is often associated with psychological disorders, especially depression.
b. All people who attempt suicide have mood disorders.
c. A small percentage of adolescent suicides are an expression of severe depression.
d. Suicide is generally a response to some disappointment in people who are otherwise psychologically healthy.
a. produces phase advances of the melatonin rhythm.
b. increases the amount of melatonin released.
c. eliminates melatonin release.
d. reverses melatonin release.
a. anxiety about airplane travel.
b. limited imagination reflected in a slow way of speaking.
c. rapid speech expressing many exciting ideas at once.
d. repression of all creative ideas.
a. Depressive episodes generally last longer.
b. Both types of episodes typically last about the same amount of time.
c. Manic episodes generally last longer.
d. This comparison cannot be made because depressive episodes are always treated.
c. a physical assault
d. a hysterectomy
a. people stop taking lithium to regain the euphoric feeling that mania produces.
b. for those patients who respond to lithium, approximately 70% will relapse.
c. for anyone with recurrent manic episodes, maintenance on lithium is recommended to prevent relapse.
d. once a person is symptom-free for 6 months, he/she may stop taking lithium.
a. Anxiety is often preceded by an episode of major depression.
b. Cognitive content (thinking) is more negative in anxious patients than in those with depression.
c. A core symptom of anxiety is the inability to experience pleasure.
d. Many depressed patients are or have been anxious and many anxious patients are or have been depressed.
a. resistance to treatment
b. treatment response
c. medication side effects
a. They show advanced slow wave sleep.
b. They enter REM sleep quickly.
c. They show delayed slow wave sleep.
d. They experience intense REM episodes.
a. hypomanic episodes.
b. both manic and hypomanic episodes.
c. full manic episodes.
d. neither manic nor hypomanic episodes.
a. is less toxic than the SSRI medications.
b. increases the availability of both dopamine and norepinephrine in the brain.
c. increases thyroid functioning, which results in improved mood stabilization.
d. helps to prevent manic episodes.
b. bipolar disorder
a. patients cannot afford antidepressant medication.
b. patient response to antidepressant medication is poor.
c. a manic-depressive patient is currently experiencing a manic episode.
d. symptoms of depression are mild.
a. Stressful life events
b. Stress hormones
c. Neurotransmitter systems
d. All of these
b. normal bereavement
c. complicated grief
d. major depression
b. dissociative identity disorder
d. somatoform disorders
a. bipolar disorder.
b. double depression.
c. cyclothymic disorder.
d. persistent depressive disorder.
a. It does contribute to the definition of several mood disorders.
b. It is not necessarily problematic.
c. It causes marked impairment in social or occupational functioning.
d. It need only last 4 days.
b. MAO inhibitors.
c. anxiety and depression
c. seasonal affective disorder
a. a hypomanic phase.
b. a prodromal period.
c. depressive episode.
d. a manic phase.
a. loss of libido (sex drive).
c. weight loss.
d. sleeping late and hypersomnia.
a. will require treatment for the rest of his life.
b. will quickly respond to treatment and will recover completely from his depression.
c. will be easier to treat now that the severe depression is resolved.
d. will require a longer and more intense course of treatment to maintain a normal mood state.
a. it promises to be an effective diagnostic tool in the future.
b. it is accurate.
c. it is effective but cannot differentiate bipolar disorder from major depression.
d. it is not useful as a diagnostic tool.
a. Less intense REM activity
b. Stages of deepest sleep occurring earlier in the sleep cycle
c. A reduction of slow-wave (deep) sleep.
d. Slower onset of REM sleep